Is there any reason, other than not having line of sight to the enemy, that anyone would want to use the flee command as oppossed to using the assualt command --even when not engaging the enemy. The movement is the same and the stats are better with assault. Am I missing anything here?
I apologize , I was looking at "run" not "flee". If I need to move in a turn, "assault" allows me the same distance as "run" without the negative defense. There is no downside--if the enemy is not adjacent at the end of movement, I would just lose my opportunity to attack. Both movements yield one fatigue marker.
The question is really whether or not your orders are allowed to predict and plan for the movement orders of your enemy, or whether or not you can only issue an assault that ends adjacent to an enemy's current location. Otherwise, Without any restriction, The player could always use the assault order even if they only intend on moving. I suspect that the allowed movement for "run orders" may be a misprint and it should be the same distance as "march orders".